Finasteride Response

[RainMan11]

So the studies on finasteride show that some people just aren't responders to the medication. My question is: why doesn't finasteride work for these people? Does it fail to reduce DHT levels in these people? Or does it successfully reduce DHT levels, but the hair follicles are still damaged by the remaining low DHT levels?

The reason I am asking is because I know DHT levels have been reduced in my body since starting the drug (a whole lot of body hair has fallen out). Since I know for a fact that my DHT levels are down, does that mean i will eventually respond positively?

 

[FSHGLD]

I read somewhere that in the clinical trials 19% on the placebo were described as 'greatly reduced' after 5 years, versus 0% on finasteride. So I think it does something for everyone, just in some cases it just slows down the loss, and doesn't give any regrowth, whereas for others it gives amazing results. Give it a year at least.

 

[Spanishlad]

I wanted to know this also. Does it not reduce DHT as much in some people so thats why they see less of a responce. or does it reduce DHT the same in everyone just some people have better results from less DHT than others

 

[Vigaku]

I'd say it depends on your intensity of male pattern baldness i.e. your rate of hair loss. Propecia could only work so much at a time to fight DHT.

Also I was wondering what people think of the following:

Myth: The sexual side effects are frequent and irreversible.
Fact: The sexual side effects occur in 2% and are reversible when the medication is stopped.

See it's always this "2%" business that bothers me...seriously? 2%? Because for some reason it seems that Propecia gives side effects to at least 50% people taking the drug, and I mean sexual sides.

I'm not sure, for example, how I would fall in the minority. After all I have had the type of libido where I can masturbate 3 or 4 times a day, and so forth. I definitely shouldn't have a weak and vulnerable system, yet I believe I got some sides after 2 years like less thick semen. I know difficulty to hold urine in is something I have, but I can't say it's the Propecia for sure, since I had it even before Propecia (Propecia may have increased it though, so I'm not sure) besides I thought finasteride was supposed to have an opposite effect? Benign hyperplasia is when someone needs to FREQUENTLY urinate, right? So why would Propecia, the substance that combats prostatic hyperplasia make me urinate a lot?