Hi all
I've read a few times that after ceasing taking Finesteride, a person's hairloss will revert to the position they would have been in had tehy never taken it. I am stuggling a little with what this actually means.
1. Does it mean that say my hairloss is only half as severe as it would have been had I not been taken Finesteride and I've been on the drug for 10 years, that within a matter of months it will look like it would had I never taken the drug; or
2. does it mean that the conditions under which I am losing my hair will return to "normal" because the finasteride is no loner in your system within a few months?
I've always read these comments to mean point 1. but am struggling to understand how say 10 years can be undone in a matter of months.
Can anyone clarify which is correct and if it's 1. how does this happen?!?!?
I've read a few times that after ceasing taking Finesteride, a person's hairloss will revert to the position they would have been in had tehy never taken it. I am stuggling a little with what this actually means.
1. Does it mean that say my hairloss is only half as severe as it would have been had I not been taken Finesteride and I've been on the drug for 10 years, that within a matter of months it will look like it would had I never taken the drug; or
2. does it mean that the conditions under which I am losing my hair will return to "normal" because the finasteride is no loner in your system within a few months?
I've always read these comments to mean point 1. but am struggling to understand how say 10 years can be undone in a matter of months.
Can anyone clarify which is correct and if it's 1. how does this happen?!?!?