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That's a complicated question which has barely been explored, so it will probably be many years before we have a satisfactory answer to it. I think an even more interesting question is why susceptibility to androgen-induced hair loss "switches on" in particular HFs at a particular age. Hamilton showed that while 20-year-old castrates injected with testosterone lose hair at the same rate as normal 20-year-olds, but castrates injected with testosterone in their 60s can lose all of their hair within months. It seems then that in these 60-year-old castrates, there is some latent androgen sensitivity which exists independent of exposure to androgens, but it needs that DHT trigger to set it off.
Very interesting indeed. That's a brutal and painful observation too imo. What's your take on that?
Also look at the following presentation; http://www.sinclairdermatology.com....rogenic-Alopecia-new-insights-August-2014.pdf
Kinda interesting also that the "secondary hair follicles" miniaturize first apparently in Androgenetic Alopecia diffuse hair loss and the primary as last (APM loses connection with primary as last).
How would you explain that?