anyone take finasteride .05 mg every day?

[dazzerler]

well i take 0.20 mg of finasteride daily slight side in the first three week possible lower libido but hardly (gone now 4 weeks in) sperm slightly watery but the voulume is back up to normal. I get 50 mils of vodka 2 fincar tablets (thata 5 mg finasteride each x 2 so 10 mg per 50 mil alchohol) tip it in to a washed out minoxidil bottle and take 1 ml pipet every ever evening. So for my 1 mil pipet i get exactly 0.20 mg of finasteride. I must say at first i was sceptical about such low dosage but it if def in my system and working realy well. i find this is the best way to take sucg low dosage and i cant see personaly for why i would increase it im getting reasults after 5 weeks little to no sides and studies have shown that even though lower dose's such as this may have a slightly higher level of DHT in plasma test the test from the scalp area are the same so therefore just as effective in hair loss with out f#cking with your body : )

 

[Hecfield]

And AGAIN I'm asking you: what makes you think that there's less 5a-reductase activity (on average, and for its size) in the scalp than in all the other body tissues that contain it? Is that just an assumption on your part? I don't doubt that the prostate, for just one example, is a very significant source of DHT (especially for its size), but it's certainly not the only other source besides the scalp. I still think it's pretty speculative to say that DHT-producing activity in the scalp is minimized before DHT levels in the blood are minimized. I'd like to know what evidence you have for that, or what argument you can make in support of your hypothesis.

Thats the point in a hypothesis. You think of it, and then you test it. It's 100% speculation, and I'm not claiming otherwise.

I mean proportionately to type I reductase, which I gather is responsible for a greater proportion of scalp reductase than it is in serum. I'll leave it for now, look into it, and see if it stands when I've done more research.

 

[ryan r]

well i take 0.20 mg of finasteride daily slight side in the first three week possible lower libido but hardly (gone now 4 weeks in) sperm slightly watery but the voulume is back up to normal. I get 50 mils of vodka 2 fincar tablets (thata 5 mg finasteride each x 2 so 10 mg per 50 mil alchohol) tip it in to a washed out minoxidil bottle and take 1 ml pipet every ever evening. So for my 1 mil pipet i get exactly 0.20 mg of finasteride. I must say at first i was sceptical about such low dosage but it if def in my system and working realy well. i find this is the best way to take sucg low dosage and i cant see personaly for why i would increase it im getting reasults after 5 weeks little to no sides and studies have shown that even though lower dose's such as this may have a slightly higher level of DHT in plasma test the test from the scalp area are the same so therefore just as effective in hair loss with out f#cking with your body : )

I keep reading conflicting stories about topical finasteride, dunno what is true!

 

[dazzerler]

my dose of 0.20 taken in the vodka is oral not topical.

 

[ryan r]

Oh ok!

Im still a bit scared to lower the dose, I thought 0,5 mg finasteride was 70 or 80 percent effective as 1 mg?

 

[eth0]

you can go as low as 0.05 and still see the same effects. It's a flat rate.

http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinf ... peciafda2/

 

[dazzerler]

yes you are right it is almost as effective in the scalp and skin etc just dose not mess with your body as much start out small if no side and after 6 months you are seeing results why go higher and there is in my opinion far less chance of side and from what i have read my others dropping to lower dose give it a try or you will never know

 

[ryan r]

Awesome!

Now I need an adress where I can order 1mg finasteride, and order with internetbanking (dont have a creditcard).

Btw, if 0,25/0,5 mg is just as effective as 1mg, why do they make 1mg finasteride pills?

 

[Bryan]

you can go as low as 0.05 and still see the same effects. It's a flat rate.

You can't go as low as 0.05 and see the same effects, and it's not a flat rate. You can go as low as 0.05 and see NEARLY the same effects, and it's NEARLY a flat rate. But 0.05 is at, or near, the very bottom limit of what will work to some degree. It may not work at all for some "outliers".

Let's be careful when we choose our words.

 

[Bryan]

yes you are right it is almost as effective in the scalp and skin etc just dose not mess with your body as much start out small if no side and after 6 months you are seeing results why go higher and there is in my opinion far less chance of side...

I couldn't disagree with you any more strongly. I see no earthly reason to believe that there would be a "far less chance" of SIDE effects, while DESIRED effects stay about the same. That's wishful thinking on your part, but there's no logic to it. I think the likelihood of SIDE effects and DESIRED effects are the same, regardless of which specific dose you take.

 

[Bryan]

Btw, if 0,25/0,5 mg is just as effective as 1mg, why do they make 1mg finasteride pills?

0.25/0.5 mg aren't just as effective as 1 mg. They're NEARLY as effective as 1 mg.

If _I_ were the boss at Merck in charge of making decisions about their products, I'd probably make the same 1 mg choice for Propecia. It's a large enough dose to cover almost all of the "outliers" (individuals who require an unusually large dose to cross that threshold where 5a-reductase starts to be inhibited significantly), but not so much that it's wastefully large.

 

[eth0]

you can go as low as 0.05 and still see the same effects. It's a flat rate.

You can't go as low as 0.05 and see the same effects, and it's not a flat rate. You can go as low as 0.05 and see NEARLY the same effects,

Hi Bryan

I would always advise anyone to listen to your advise over mine as I base most of my research on yours. My point is (was) that 0.05mg of finasteride was pretty much as effective at stopping miniturazation as 1mg of finasteride, according to the link I posted. Again, for clarity, here it is.
http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinf ... peciafda2/


If you can shed any more light on this I would be _more_ than happy to hear your view. Until then, I've now reduced my rate to as close to 0.05 as possible.

Thanks, your knowledge is very much needed in this forum.

 

[Bryan]

My point is (was) that 0.05mg of finasteride was pretty much as effective at stopping miniturazation as 1mg of finasteride, according to the link I posted. Again, for clarity, here it is.
http://www.physics.upenn.edu/facultyinf ... peciafda2/

If you can shed any more light on this I would be _more_ than happy to hear your view. Until then, I've now reduced my rate to as close to 0.05 as possible.

Frankel's paper doesn't say anything about the ability of various doses of finasteride to stop the miaturization of hair follicles, except for ONE sentence which makes a very oblique reference to haircounts. The main thrust of his paper has to do only with DHT and testosterone levels in blood and skin after various finasteride doses, which isn't the same thing.

More important than Frankel's ruminations on blood levels of DHT, I think, would be an examination of the actual PERFORMANCE of finasteride at maintaining hair. The actual "dose-response" study of finasteride, the one to which Frankel refers and the one that I've scanned and posted many times on these hairloss sites, shows that the larger finasteride doses _did_ produce haircounts that were a little better than the smaller doses. The difference may not be statistically significant, but then again the trials with the smaller doses lasted for only six months. They do seem to show a trend, and one that may become more significant over a longer period of time than just six months.

The bottom-line is that I don't think there's much to Frankel's paper. I don't think he has much of a point to make. As I mentioned recently in another thread, if I were the boss at Merck, even _I_ would set the Propecia dose at 1 mg. I think Merck made a good decision on that.

 

[ryan r]

Btw, if 0,25/0,5 mg is just as effective as 1mg, why do they make 1mg finasteride pills?

0.25/0.5 mg aren't just as effective as 1 mg. They're NEARLY as effective as 1 mg.

If _I_ were the boss at Merck in charge of making decisions about their products, I'd probably make the same 1 mg choice for Propecia. It's a large enough dose to cover almost all of the "outliers" (individuals who require an unusually large dose to cross that threshold where 5a-reductase starts to be inhibited significantly), but not so much that it's wastefully large.

Ok, makes sense.

But Bryan, how effective is NEARLY as?

And your saying that effectiveness and sides are linked to each other, so if half a dose of propecia would be 80 percent as effective then the sides would only go down to 80 percent? I dont know if thats worth the dose increase.

 

[Rios39]

I posted a thread outside of this basically same topic. Reading all the "opinions" in here have confused me. If I reduce from 1 MG per day, would I be decreasing side affects while still getting similar results to the hair?

 

[Bryan]

But Bryan, how effective is NEARLY as?

Something like 80% or so as effective.

And your saying that effectiveness and sides are linked to each other, so if half a dose of propecia would be 80 percent as effective then the sides would only go down to 80 percent?

Something like that, yes. You've got the general idea.

 

[Bryan]

Reading all the "opinions" in here have confused me. If I reduce from 1 MG per day, would I be decreasing side affects while still getting similar results to the hair?

Again, I would expect the possibility and/or severity of SIDE effects to be roughly similar to the possibility and/or severity of DESIRED effects, at any particular dose.

 

[ryan r]

Bryan, thanks for your answers. :bravo: