feel free to correct me or shut me down on this post as it is merely a thought but...what I have noticed is that...finasteride doesnt do much for me wheras I felt the effects of rogaine foam within a month...fibres already thickening etc. Now i am not sure but I would guess I would somewhat have the hormonal profile of a woman...(had gyno since as long as I remember)...where im getting with this...women usually have diffuse thinning...and some women have male pattern baldness in the same patterm as men even!!! yet how is that possible when they don't produce as much DHT...where im going with this thinking is...women are prescribed treatmenets different from men (i.e. rogaine and such)...and my lines of thinking were...since Im barely responding to the finasteride...wouldnt diffusers respond as well to woman treatments (i.e. testorestone injections into the scalp)? My line of thinking is that perhaps some mechanism is involved that is INFLUENCED but not restricted to either sex. THis is where I stand back and let educated people who know the science of this attempt to shut down my idea.