Hm... is that what it says? It says:
At 48 weeks, 58%, 54%, and 6% of men in the finasteride 1 mg, finasteride 0.2 mg, and placebo groups, respectively, had improved based on assessments of global photographs. All efficacy endpoints were numerically superior for the 1 mg dose over the 0.2 mg dose at 48 weeks. Finasteride treatment was generally well tolerated. Finasteride 1 mg\day slows hair loss and improves hair growth in Japanese men with male pattern hair loss.
I read that to mean, while almost the same % of men in the 0.2mg group showed improvement, the improvement itself that was shown was more significant in the 1mg group? "All efficacy endpoints were numerically superior for the 1 mg dose". Would "all efficacy endpoints" not include "endpoints" like the amount of new hairs, thickness of hairs, etc?