S Foote.
Experienced Member
- Reaction score
- 67
Bryan said:S Foote. said:Bryan said:No. I've never heard that only DP cells have androgen receptors. I'm asking you for a reference or citation to support that claim.
Choose any in-vitro follicle cell study you like Bryan. If other follicle cells apart from DP cells have androgen receptors, they would have been refered to in these studies surely?
If you can show that other follicle cells have androgen receptors, dont be shy.
As I've already said, I don't recall any studies that had any such a finding, one way or the other. One rather authoritative source which I've quoted over the years (David Whiting's "Male Pattern Hair Loss: Current Understanding") made no mention of such a claim. So once again, I'm asking YOU to tell ME where you heard that claim. Don't be shy.
OK, this is the situation as i understand it.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/9496234
Quote:
" androgens are believed to act on the epithelial hair follicle via the mesenchyme-derived dermal papilla."
http://www.androgeneticalopecia.com/hai ... tors.shtml
Quote:
"The primary location for the androgen receptor in hair appears to be the dermal papillae in both anagen and telogen hairs. The androgen receptor has been found to be present in dermal sheath cells, supporting the concept that dermal sheath cells can replace dermal papilla cells even in androgen-dependent follicles"
My question is, if androgen receptors only exist in DP and dermal sheath cells, how can androgens directly effect progenitor cells as described in the posted study? http://www.jci.org/articles/view/44478#SEC3
These cells are the next step from stem cells, dont have androgen receptors, and exist "BEFORE" other cell lines that may send out growth restriction signals (according to the direct effect theory).
So how can the direct theory explain how early progenitor cells can be reduced in number by the direct androgen effect ?
Care to respond without ranting Bryan?