Hi everyone. This is probably a dumb question. But I've read a number of times that 5AR-I is less of a culprit in male pattern baldness than 5AR-II. I'm not sure that I understand this. If both 5AR-I and II bind with testosterone to form DHT, which then binds to hair follicles and triggers an autoimmune response, why would 5AR-I be less of a culprit than Type II? Is there something different about the DHT formed with Type I? Thanks.