so i just wanted to do a little survey to see the type of people that usually respond to minoxidil or finasteride. seeing as finasteride and minoxidil act via 2 vastly different but not very well understood systems. I propose that maybe one mechanism contributes disproportionately to male pattern baldness for different people. I'm curious about this because i cannot grow a full beard in my mid 20s and when i first tried minoxidil i saw a fair bit of success(i have since quit using it).
i wanted to ask two questions:
1 do people with an oversensitivity to androgens(full beard at a relatively early age, descent amount of body hair) have more success with finasteride as apposed to minoxidil?
2 is minoxidil more effective in people who don't seem to have this hypersensitivity to androgens(eg don't have a full beard in their teens/early 20s, normal amounts of body hair)?
Any input would be appreciated!
i wanted to ask two questions:
1 do people with an oversensitivity to androgens(full beard at a relatively early age, descent amount of body hair) have more success with finasteride as apposed to minoxidil?
2 is minoxidil more effective in people who don't seem to have this hypersensitivity to androgens(eg don't have a full beard in their teens/early 20s, normal amounts of body hair)?
Any input would be appreciated!