I've seen here and other forums guys that take finasteride for 1-5 years with no sides....than suddenly they get balls ache and no errections.
How the heck this happens? No issues for such a long time than you suddenly get sides. All the time they say it gets to normal a few days after stop finasteride....so that's why it's caused by finasteride.
Is there a trigger somehow that we don't know. Everyone should worry that after 5 years suddenly sides kicks in?
How the heck this happens? No issues for such a long time than you suddenly get sides. All the time they say it gets to normal a few days after stop finasteride....so that's why it's caused by finasteride.
Is there a trigger somehow that we don't know. Everyone should worry that after 5 years suddenly sides kicks in?