baldnesssadness
Established Member
- Reaction score
- 4
this is getting more and more complicated 
my theory is that the galea becomes tighter in some than others. Genetically, where the relevant muscles maybe stronger?!
Im new here, but dont question my intelligence, I would blow you out of the water.
Is the exact shape of every male pattern baldness man a coincidence? If we were to test the theory, it would almost certainly be statistically significant to 99.99% confidence level.
Perhaps i didn't explain my theory very well. there is a possibility that the galea is restricing microvascularisation which is leading to a hypoxic state of the affected areas. whether this is a small cog in male pattern baldness; i do not know. but almost certainly the density of androgenic receptors in this area would indicate that these have been up-regulated in response to a negative feedback loop.
It could even be that the galea is thicker on those with male pattern baldness, who the fudge knows. but it is an element which i am not ignorant enough to ignore.
DHT is fine on its own, but coupled with a hypoxic environment is when it causes the trouble.
in a way it seems baldness is a alergic condition since pgd2 in the lungs and blood causes asthma on scalp it causes baldness. I guess the ones that are balding gets these pgd2 geneticly . So Dennis what kinda side effects have you seen yet?
this has been debunked over and over and over and over and over and over and over and over again.
How do you explain hypoxia on the scalp is only present in the galea area?
btw, men are not the only ones with hormone related hair loss, and this hair loss happens mostly on the galea region in women…
Thing is we each give a different thought and theory.
yes we do give theories, since no one here is a scientist , we give logical theories that can or not work, we are trying to help each other here to find a way to stop balding? because thats why we are here right?
right except that the theory you provided has already been suggested before and since then been proved to be false. Why is it so hard to understand?
right except that the theory you provided has already been suggested before and since then been proved to be false. Why is it so hard to understand?